But what’s the fuss all about? Well, a question that was raised a few days ago (and early this week. Let me remind that it’s a closed group!) in one of the groups I’m in nearly had me commented on what I believe about it but because of some errands and unfinished business at work, I could not. I’ll make it simple so you won’t have to join the group if in case you’re just a random reader like I am.
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| Is there a problem here? |
The question is, “Could Jesus have sinned?” — My answer is both yes and no. Let me share with you why.
Most Christians, if not for the sake of a greater cause, tend to shelf this question for safekeeping unless it’s intentionally asked for the purpose of knowing if he/she affirms a sound Biblical doctrine and/or is not a heretic. But would it really be a heresy for a Christian to say yes to that question given a certain condition? Would affirming to it be considered a departure from what’s written if you are to say that “yes, He could’ve possibly sinned”?
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| Heh! Can’t beat me! |
So let me explain further why I’m standing in the middle:
Why answer “no”?
To answer “no” is to say that because He is completely Divine, He will never commit an unlawful act whether it be in His mind and/or actions. Being fully Divine, the Father’s divinity is at risk if we should say “yes” that Jesus could’ve sinned despite Him being in a glorified body after resurrection. Paul Himself went on further to justify this by saying, that “in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily” (Col. 2:9)
Therefore, my answer to the question above should be “no”.
Why answer “yes”?
To answer yes is to affirm that He is a complete Man, making Him the second Adam. The same perfection that was given unto the first Adam was embraced by the Messiah. That we can never doubt. As sinless as the first, He is the Son of Man who came and died for the atonment of our sins. Therefore (and only given such considerations that we’re talking about the fully Man in Him being present in the first Adam who caused us to die,) my answer to the question above will also be “yes”. May I remind you of the federalism?
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| Yes. Wait just simply say no. I don’t get it why I have to say yes. Oh I get it. It can be both! |
Premise 1: Christ is fully divine and fully Man
Premise 2: God divine cannot sin while Man can
Therefore Christ as fully divine cannot sin but as fully Man can
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| pew. pew. |
I believe that Jesus, the second person of the Trinity is the God-Man in the God-Head and being so, He is both divine and alive in flesh and blood. Thus, His sharing of the divine attributes that the Father has will and/or can never commit sin. This same divinity that Jesus has is shared also with the same perfection of Man that Adam had prior to the fall. Adam was just a man. He wasn’t divine. Jesus is God (and is one with the Father and the Spirit) who was also just-as-perfect-as-the-pre-fall Adam. Believing that the Fully- Man-Christ Himself could never sin is to question Adam’s fall. Why did Adam sin?
A Solemn Appeal
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| You don’t really have to punch me for real — and with gloves! |
Wrapping It Up
So, the next time you’ll ask me the question: could Jesus have sinned?, feel free to check back here to find out if I have made any changes. But until then, my answer would be both yes and no.
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| I’m a baptist, You’re Presbyterian. Now what? Maybe I’m a Charismatic! |
Accept the fact that there are genuine Christians who believes that He could’ve sinned but did not without condemning the thought of it as blasphemous. It’s not like the issue is whether to accept semi-pelagianism as a possible Biblical response to salvation or not, is it? - Jerboy Magalang
Accept the fact that there are genuine Christians who believes that He could’ve sinned but did not without condemning the thought of it as blasphemous. It’s not like the issue is whether to accept semi-pelagianism as a possible Biblical response to salvation or not, is it? - Jerboy Magalang









